Recent comments in /f/history

Sniffy4 t1_j12vp3d wrote

>Truman who had made the hard decision to use the bombs being disgusted by a man who had made the decision to create them and after the fact constantly second-guessed the entire idea.

The technical term for someone unaffected by 200k deaths they personally ordered is "sociopath."

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shantipole t1_j12s4w2 wrote

IMHO, there's a difference between being unaffected and refusing to dwell on "what might have beens." If Oppenheimer was as fixated on his own guilt (or "guilt") as the quote suggests, I can see a Truman who had made the hard decision to use the bombs being disgusted by a man who had made the decision to create them and after the fact constantly second-guessed the entire idea.

[edited to fix a typo]

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crowman006 t1_j12r5xi wrote

With every gun manufacturer on the planet working to improve the stg-44 , the allied forces were arguing about which cartridge to chamber in the FAL . Belgium licensed almost every free world country to manufacture their own . The Spaniards went with the cetme , and the Germans improved it to the HK G-3 , all chambered to the US .308 , renamed to its metric equivalent. History isn’t too clear on why the U.S. didn’t follow suit with the FAL or the L1A1 . Some say the weight of the rifle , expense of both manufacturing the rifle and ammunition. Many in the pentagon liked the power of the .308 , and this is where the stories get cloudier . It seems that some in the pentagon had way too much cash and time to shop around . One might think they were shopping for kickbacks , dragging their feet and unofficially arguing about the AR10 and then it’s scaled down copy the AR15, later the M16 . Much cheaper to shoot and less recoil with the straight bolt carrier design .

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Ironclad2nd t1_j12qyyf wrote

Everything except your last statement was true. ‘The US didn’t want a non-US design.’ The .280 was effective in both ballistics and cost effectiveness not to mention weight for the soldier carrying it. It was proven come the 5.56 over the 7.62. The main issue the US had was millions of rounds of 30.06 which had already been made and nowhere to use them.

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Cristoff13 t1_j12pf96 wrote

Yet part of the definition of an assault rifle is it must be capable of selective fire. And the great majority of intermediate calibre rifles in military service still have selective fire. This despite most sources I've seen agreeing automatic fire is something the great majority of riflemen very rarely, if ever, use.

And the STG-44 wasn't a very well constructed rifle. It was almost a last ditch weapon, sacrificing longevity of service for ease of manufacture.

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KarmaticIrony t1_j12mm1y wrote

TLDR compared to the M1 rifles and carbines the US already possesed the STG-44 was significantly heavier and less reliable. It's major X factor of possessing automatic fire was essentially useless as automatic fire is not useful for most rifleman in general and the STG-44 in particular was not well designed for sustained automatic fire.

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TurboTortois3 OP t1_j12m78p wrote

Ah, so it seems like its mainly because the US army wanted tried and true long range high caliber rifles rather than a new and unproven technology that failed to win a country a war. That makes sense, since automatic weapons had been a relatively new concept, at least compared to musket and rifle technology.

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KarmaticIrony t1_j12krmg wrote

Indeed and it was primarily used in semi-auto by German troops. The concept of an assault rifle as we know it today was not really achieved in technical design or tactical use until to introduction of the AK47.

In that case the soviets were looking for a replacement for their SMGs rather than intentionally introducing a new type of weapon.

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