Recent comments in /f/askscience

Cleistheknees t1_j7cgenh wrote

To reiterate, if you’re saying “X is Y”, and it’s only true 30% of the time, then the statement is incorrect.

> They also provided me with This study that says there’s likely a genetic component since identical twins as well as non-identical if one has multiple of the antibodies.

There is most certainly a genetic component to autoimmune type 1 diabetes. That much is beyond question. However, you did say quite a bit more than “there’s a genetic component”.

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ceapaire t1_j7cex77 wrote

I was repeating what I was told by Dr.s in a research study I was in for T1D.

>There is no evidence to support this, at all, and quite a bit against it. The penetration of genes implicated in T1D is low. The concordance rate in monozygotic twins is low. 90% of people with T1D have no known relatives with the disease. Etc.

They also provided me with This study that says there's likely a genetic component since identical twins as well as non-identical if one has multiple of the antibodies. And it at least held enough weight for TrialNet to expand their testing for twins to lifetime instead of cutting it off at 18, as they do with any other relatives.

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yanessa t1_j7cdk0u wrote

ad1) summer/winter time was introduced in the 20th century (first official use 1908 inOntario, Canada) so n.a. here

ad2) time zones started being used in the latter 19th century for railways

the differing hour length from medieval time measurement is a better bet

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AUniquePerspective t1_j7ccxje wrote

I don't know if it is the same for cities in Rheinland-Pfalz but I believe Berlin abandoned Local Mean Time in 1893 in favor of CET (Central European Time UTC +1). Currently Rheinland-Pfalz uses CET in winter and CEST (Central European Summer Time UTC +2) in summer.

LMT Local mean time differs from apparent solar time as can be observed with a sundial in that time is constant with LMT but the speed of time varies with a sundial.

This is all confusing without examples so...

At Mainz on this year's summer solstice, the sun will rise at 5:17 CEST, reach solar noon at 13:28, and set at 21:39 CEST.

And on this year's winter solstice, the sun will rise at 8:22 CET, reach solar noon at 12:25, and set at 16:27 CET.

There are (by subtraction) 8 hours ten minutes between noon and sunset midsummer and 4 hours between noon and sunset midwinter. This explains the timing of the candle law.

Edit: But it's also important to recall that sunset isn't the time it gets too dark. There are 3 phases of twilight. During Civil Twilight it is generally possible to do outdoor activities though the sun is below the horizon. During nautical twilight, if the sky is clear, the brighter stars are visible and so is the horizon. During astronomical twilight, some stars that would otherwise be visible are obscured by sunlight.

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kmoonster t1_j7c8x37 wrote

How old? If a city had gas streetlights in the evening, those lights may have been extinguished once evening traffic slowed down.

It's also possible they used a different sequence of names for the hours and/or daylight savings.

[It is probably due to a combination of different definitions of time-setting, our modern lack of familiarity with night vision, and a little astronomy]

And there is also the different grades of darkness. A sunset at 5pm will have useful light until 6 or 7 depending on your latitude, though it's less obvious today with modern electric lights being ubiquitous. Where I am, you can make out trees against the sky for an hour or so after the sun goes behind the horizon, but you have to actively be looking for it in order to notice it. The presence of so many electric lights and headlights means your night-vision never has the chance to grow into it because those opsins are always being knocked back. Given time to properly form, your dark-vision can pick out a trail in an open area even a couple of hours (or more!) after sunset.

Combine this with a sense of how quickly the sun moves, and you can work out useful light after dark fairly easily. The sun moves through about 15 degrees of arc in an hour, and there are discernible amounts of useful light up to at least 18 degrees of arc below the horizon, sometimes more depending on weather -- and you can have well in excess of an hour before/after the sun is visible. Perhaps two hours or even more. And if the area has an open tree canopy, stars provide a fair amount of light if they are visible.

This page illustrates the different shades of twilight in a way that may be useful. https://www.timeanddate.com/astronomy/different-types-twilight.html

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[Note: keep in mind that both latitude and season will affect how long it takes to have the sun position itself 18-20 degrees below the horizon, as the sun rarely crosses at precisely 90 degrees. The sun moves along the hypotenuse of a right triangle, not the short leg. This means reaching 18 degrees of arc below the horizon means traveling *more* than 18 degrees of arc along its [apparent] path of motion, or more than the 1.2 hours it would need if it were travelling at a right-angle to the horizon. In mid-summer, you can experience twilight all night if you are a few miles from the Arctic/Antarctic Circle; while at the Equator twilight will short and relatively equal all year]

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edit: timezones are also a consideration. Until the railroads, all time was local time based on local solar noon. If you live at the far western or eastern edge of a modern time zone , you could be offset by up to two full clock-hours from someone living in your town 200 years ago -- one hour for the ~15 degrees of longitude comprising an average time zone, and one hour if your area practices daylight-savings. Time zones are measured from their theoretical central longitude, for instance where I live in Denver the 105th line of longitude literally runs through the middle of downtown (there is even a mark in the pavement where it lies). 105/15 = 7, and what do you know but Mountain Time is GMT - 7 (and we are roughly center of the Mountain Time Zone, local noon and clock noon are fairly close).

But if you live in New York, you are on the very east edge of Eastern Time and your local noon is a full hour offset from someone living in Indianapolis on the far west edge of the same time zone. If you live in northwest Indiana (Gary area) you may even be TWO hours off due to some of those counties following Chicago time (Central Time) due to their proximity to that city -- add to this that Indiana as a state does not universally do daylight savings and...you can easily find one to three hours where your modern clock could vary from the historical clock of someone living there in the early 1800s. (The new American government opened Indiana Territory to settlement by non-Native people in 1791, and by the late 1820s it was approaching its modern form from a perspective of demographics and rough political boundaries - think the world of Mark Twain and Abraham Lincoln.)

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Cleistheknees t1_j7c6xg2 wrote

Hey, just a heads up, basically everything you said here is wrong. Please avoid making authoritative claims like this if you aren’t educated on the topic, especially in subs like this. It’s how misinformation spreads.

> Type one is genetic

The ambiguous association patterns of genes like HLA and CTA4 basically proves that this statement cannot be conclusively true.

> and requires some sort of trigger (thought to be usually a virus, though as far as I’m aware they’ve not been able to pinpoint anything).

Again, sometimes. There are genotypes which are autosomal dominant for immune destruction of beta cells, like GCK-MODY. Further, there are no documented environmental triggers for T1D, so, again, stating this conclusively is wrong.

> Odds are that most people with the genetic predisposition will get it triggered at some point in their lives

There is no evidence to support this, at all, and quite a bit against it. The penetration of genes implicated in T1D is low. The concordance rate in monozygotic twins is low. 90% of people with T1D have no known relatives with the disease. Etc.

> so COVID may have been the trigger for a lot of people. But it won’t be statistically any more than normal, since they’d likely be exposed to something that triggers it anyways.

What? This makes zero sense.

Source: doctorate in evolutionary biology, and 25+ years with T1D, but only the former matters here

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bunkSauce t1_j7bycwe wrote

H1N1 affected like what, 15% of the population? And maybe 15% ish of the population were adolescents?

So 2.25% of the population were potentially kids affected with H1N1?

And 1% of the US has diabetes type 1?

So... the number of diabetic youth who may have been exposed to H1N1 is like 0.0225%?

I highly doubt, just from those numbers alone, that an association between H1N1, youth, and diabetes... would have any tangible, noticeable, or measureable effect in a truly controlled study. Literally even a 10% increase could be written off as an effect of many different factors other than H1N1.

Anyways. The idea of an association between H1N1 and diabetes has already been disproven. Don't fall down any anti vacc rabbitholes, this appears adjacent to that stuff.

Edit: reduced percent of population with diabetes, to refine from type 1 and 2, to just type 1.

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AllenRBrady t1_j7bvkb8 wrote

I would consider the possibility that the local government was still using an antiquated system of measuring hours. Prior to the widespread adoption of mechanical clocks, hours were not a fixed length. Dawn to dusk was considered daytime, and dusk to dawn was considered night, and each was divided into 12 hours. The first canonical hour of the day was called Prime, and corresponded to 6am. When the sun was overhead, it was Sext. When the sun set, it was Vespers. The duration between Prime and Vespers was divided into 12 hours, regardless of how long daylight actually lasted. So in the summer, daytime hours were longer than nighttime hours, and in the winter, that was reversed.

That system was dominant throughout Europe until around 1600, when mechanical clocks finally became prevalent enough to replace older options like sundials. It seems possible to me that, by the early 1700s, certain jurisdictions might have still been working out the whole concept that all hours were the same length, and 8pm was daytime in summer and nighttime in winter. It's possible that the ordnance you refer to assumed 8pm was "a short time after sunset", while 10pm was "a long while after sunset, but not yet midnight."

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CyberneticPanda t1_j7bsi0q wrote

It is very very close to consistent, but days are very slowly getting longer. Thanks to tidal interactions, the moon steals a little of Earth's angular momentum every year and gets a little further away. That makes the day a tiny bit longer and the tilt of the orbit a tiny bit bigger. At the start of the Triassic 252 million years ago, there were about 400 days per year, and the moon was about 6000 miles closer.

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